Quote Originally Posted by Corky Smeek View Post
Not sure I'm interpreting your point correctly but here goes anyway.

Scotland invariably gets the government England votes for. It's a simple as that. So although we all have a vote, if you happen to vote in a Scottish constituency then your vote is virtually worthless. It does nothing to affect the outcome of a UK GE. Only voters in England have any impact on the result.

Have I misinterpreted your point? If so then I apologise.
To be fair...if England is failrly evenly split between Buggins 1 and Buggins 2, we (and Wales) can make a difference...if you count popular vote as the determinant of who people want to see in charge and not the number of seats gained in an election, we have managed to elect the UK Government for a short time on three occasions in the 21 elections since 1945.

In 1951, the English popular vote for Labour and Tory was equal at 48.8%, so the seats from Scotland and Wales gave the UK a Tory Government with a 17 seat majority. Similarly in 1964, the English popular vote was marginally for the Tories by 0.8%..but with the Welsh and Scottish Labour seats, the UK got a Labour Government with a seat majority of 4. And the same thing again in 1974, Tories won the popular vote by 0.7% of votes cast, but Scottish (and Welsh) seats enabled the formation of a Labour minority Government.

Other than that, all we can do is increase the number of seats held. As far as I can see, the UK has had the Government England voted for in 18 out of 21 elections and Scotland got the government it voted for in 11 of them (the Labour Governments and the two Tory Governments in 1951 and 1955) up until 2010 when we stopped voting for either Buggins 1 or 2, so obviously none since then.